We want to prove that if a subset $E$ of a metric space $X$ is connected, then so is $\overline E$. Is the following proof valid?
Suppose that $U_1, U_2$ are a disconnection of $\overline E$. Then since $\overline E \cap U_1 \neq \emptyset$, it must be the case that $E \cap U_1$ is non-empty (for otherwise $U_1^c$ is a closed set containing $E$, and so $\overline{E} \subseteq U_1^c$). Likewise, $E \cap U_2$ is non-empty. Since $E \subseteq \overline E \subseteq U_1\cup U_2$, and by assumption $U_1 \cap U_2 = \emptyset$, these give a disconnection of $E$.